First, a word. As this is the Bible, due to common references to fornication the use of the word marriage is referring not only to the union itself, but to the sex, and by consequence procreation, that follows. Contained in the sexual aspect are also the arguments for 'straight superiority', or other such things which attempt to make homosexuality less worthy or less equal. I have seen no valid arguments for the anti-gay side of things, but I've seen next to none that dwelt on anything other than sex, so therefore, in this passage, the term 'marriage' is the whole anti-gay argument. This also includes biblical points as well: if marriage is still a valid institution, then the biblical arguments are valid, but if marriage (and by extension heterosexuality) is put down, then it would be hypocritical to use the biblical arguments against homosexuality.
1 Corinthians Chapter 7.
1: Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.”
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6: I say this as a concession, not as a command.
7: I wish that all of you were as I am...
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8: Now to the unmarried (and widowers) and the widows I say: It is good for them to stay unmarried, as I do.
9: But if they cannot control themselves, they should marry, for it is better to marry than to burn with passion.
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27: Are you pledged to a woman? Do not seek to be released. Are you free from such a commitment? Do not look for a wife.
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38: So then, he who marries the virgin does right, but he who does not marry her does better.
So, yes, this does allow marriage, but not as perfectly as many pro-straight statements would seem to imply. It recommends avoiding it, unless you're unable to control your sexual desires, which is hardly the flattering endorsement one would expect.
In conclusion, marriage is allowed (6, 9, 27, 38), but only when the sex drive is too strong (1, 9), and the ideal is to not get married (1, 7, 8, 27, 38).
Is this really the perfection advocated?

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